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Mrs SR works in admin somewhere here in Cardiff, and is paid something like £18k pro-rata'd to 57.11% of full-time.
In any case, this actually works out to a few pence less than minimum wage.
Does this make any sense? How is it possible that there even exists a salary-based pay spine that works out to less than minimum wage? I mean, we're not talking about someone who is just voluntarily working beyond their hours and so ending up, after calculation, with less than MW; we're talking about someone on an established pay spine whose salary, when divided by the number of contracted hours, comes out to less than what her children get by working at the local pub.
Is such a situation even legal? Regardless, it seems like a gross injustice, but I could be missing something.
Please help me understand.
I suspect there is an error, either in your calculation or her employers. Are you taking into account lunch breaks etc?
In any case, this actually works out to a few pence less than minimum wage.
Are you referring to after tax .
How ever it sound alike her salary was agreed pre April 2020 when Mon wage was lower.
Has she spoken to hr/payroll about this ?
I'm confused - minimum wage in the UK is based on hourly rate - currently £8.72 I believe, meaning an average 40 hour week works out at a little over £18k per year.
You say your wife is pro-rated at 57% but is paid less than minimum wage - so how many hours does she work? I would assume she works 57% of the hours for 57% of the pay?
If she works more than 57% of the hours then that would be illegal
Okay, with apologies, I was using an incorrect figure in my calculation. She is, in fact, making about 50p more than minimum wage.
Sorry for starting a thread borne of indignation, when that indignation turns out to have been misplaced!